Problem 14.9-13

Let’s call node 1, the node on the left, between R1 and R2.

Let’s call node 2, the node in the middle, between R2 and R3, corresponding to the inverting entry of the op amp. The voltage there, V2 is equal to zero.

Let’s call node 3, the node on the right, between R3 and R4.

We apply the KCL at those three nodes.

At node 1, we have

(V1 – VS)/R1 + (V1 – V3)*Cs +  (V1 – V2)/R2 = 0   (1)

and V2 = 0

At node 2, we have

(V2 – V1)/R2 +  (V2 – V3)/R3 = 0   (2)

so we find V3/R3  = – V1/R2 (2b)

At node 3, we have

(V3 – V2)/R3 + (V3 – V1)*Cs +  (V3 – V0)/R4 = 0   (3)

We take (2b) and replace it in equation (1), to get:

(V1 – VS)/R1 + (V1 + R3V1/R2 )*Cs +  V1/R2 = 0

From this we find V1 as a function of VS:

Now, we take (2b) and replace it in equation (3) as well, to get:

– V1/R2 – (R3V1/R2 + V1)*Cs – (R3V1/R2 + V0)/R4 = 0

which is exactly V1/R2 + (R3V1/R2 + V1)*Cs + (R3V1/R2 + V0)/R4 = 0

From this we find V1 as a function of V0:

So finally the transfer function is: